From where I’m standing philosophically, the answer is “obviously not, our particular emotions are contingent aspects of human intelligence which exist for specific evolutionary reasons”. In trying to find more evidence for this opinion, I found this Wikipedia article on alexithymia:

Alexithymia (pronounced /əˌlɛksəˈθaɪmiə/) from the Greek words λέξις and θύμος modified by an alpha-privative — literally “without words for emotions” — is a term coined by psychotherapist Peter Sifneos in 1973 to describe a state of deficiency in understanding, processing, or describing emotions.

The formal definition is here:

1. difficulty identifying feelings and distinguishing between feelings and the bodily sensations of emotional arousal
2. difficulty describing feelings to other people
3. constricted imaginal processes, as evidenced by a paucity of fantasies
4. a stimulus-bound, externally oriented cognitive style.

Continuing down the page, it looks like some pop-psychology BS is being deployed to define this category, but could it still be valid? If someone really has “no emotions”, it seems like they’d need to have some genetic disorder that somehow suspended functions in parts of the limbic system without killing them entirely. It seems possible to me that alexithymiacs just have lower emotional arousal than others, rather than the genuine absence of all type of emotion — but who knows?

Some initially pop-psych sounding categories do end up seeming legitimate. Like psychopaths, for instance, which truly do have different neural activation patterns than normal people when exposed to things like violence.

Is anyone else familiar with alexithymia or any empirical research on it?